Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 1-9 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 1 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

Below you will find the assessment items as presented on the exam as well as the scoring rules associated with the item.

1.   Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What are two examples of industry specific software? (Choose two.)

an educational tool
presentation
spreadsheet
word processing
medical practice management software
database management

2.   What characteristic of word processing software would make it a local application?

The application is shared between users.
The software is stored on the local hard drive.
The software is accessible through a web page.
The software has the ability to manipulate text and graphics

3.   Which three terms describe different types of computers? (Choose three.)

operating system
network
laptop
desktop
Windows
mainframe

4.   What are two benefits of connecting a laptop computer to a docking station? (Choose two.)

Mobility is increased.
Less power is required.
An external monitor can be used.
More wireless security options are available.
Alternate connectivity options may be available.

5.   Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts?

Servers require more power and thus require more components.
Servers should be accessible at all times.
Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.
Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

6.   What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed?

bits
pixels
hertz
bytes

7.   What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer? (Choose two.)

usually a lower cost
exact components may be specified
extended waiting period for assembly
adequate for performing most general applications
suited for customers with special needs

8.   A user needs to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer feature is important in the determination of how many simultaneous applications can be run?

amount of RAM
clock speed of CPU
driver for video card
amount of cache memory
size of hard disk
RPM speed of the hard disk

9.   Which PC component is used to enable a computer system to exchange information with other systems on an Ethernet network?

NIC
serial port
parallel port
IR port
USB port

10.   A computer user is interested in computer storage. Which storage device typically has the highest storage capacity?

Blu-ray disc
DVD disc
hard disk
static memory

11.   Which low-cost component is designed to remove only overvoltages from a power line?

UPS
power supply
surge suppresor
extension cord that has an on/off switch

12.   What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not? (Choose two.)

It protects the computer from voltage surges.
It provides backup power from an internal battery.
It protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes.
It gives the user time to phone the electrical company.
It gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails.
It provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet.

13.   Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is responsible for processing all of the data within the machine?

RAM
CPU
video card
sound card
operating system

14.   What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD)?

dry and non humid conditions
carpeted floor
grounding strap
uncluttered work space

15.   Because of the potentially dangerous voltage levels, which two devices should you not open unless you have been specifically trained to work on them? (Choose two.)

mouse
printer
monitor
keyboard
hard drive
power supply

16.   In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when components are installed?

manually assigned by the operating system
manually assigned by the administrator
statically assigned by the component to a preset resource
dynamically assigned between the component and the operating system

17.   A user reports that a peripheral device that was installed correctly last week has not been functioning since the PC was booted today. All other PC functions are working properly. What are three things a service technician should do to solve the problem? (Choose three.)

Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.
Verify that all cables are connected properly.
Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.
Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.
Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.
Reload the computer operating system.

18.   Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device? (Choose two.)

Download and install the most current driver.
Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.
Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.
Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be used.
Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the PC vendor.

19.   How is a server different from a workstation computer?

The server works as a standalone computer.
The server provides services to clients.
The workstation has fewer applications installed.
The workstation has more users who attach to it.

20.   Administrators at a multicampus college need access to their schedules wherever the administrators go. Which computing device would be the most appropriate?

PDA
laptop
desktop
mainframe
gaming device

21.   How many unique values are possible using a single binary digit?

1
2
4
8
9
16

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 2 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a command prompt?

CLI GUI
redirector
kernel translator

2.   What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose two.)

CLI
OS
GUI
NIC
kernel

3.   What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL (GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)

full access to source code
software often available free structured development cycle
can be expensive to purchase
limits what end-user can do with code
support normally user-based and often free

4.   Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)

type of keyboard
printer requirements
required video memory
required hard disk space
processor type and speed
recommended amount of RAM

5.   An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method should be used to correct the problem?

clean install
upgrade
multi-boot
virtualization

6.   Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)

Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.
Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating system prior to upgrading.

7.   Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)

Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.
A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
Each partition requires a different file system type.

8.   Which Windows file system is more likely to be used in an enterprise-level environment?

ext2
ext3
NTFS
FAT16
FAT32

9.   What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations dynamically?

Each computer receives a permanent IP address.
A network administrator enters information on each computer.
Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that configuration information.

10.   Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)

IP address
subnet mask
closest server
default gateway
operating system
network card manufacturer

11.   What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network provides a permanent address to a computer identifies the network to which a computer is connected identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

12.   Which statement is true about installing an operating system on computers in a networked environment?

The computer name must be unique for all computers on the same network.
The operating system must be the same on all computers on the same network.
The amount of installed RAM must be the same on all computers on the same network.
The operating system must have the latest patch applied during the installation or it will not participate in the network.

13.   Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a network? (Choose two.)

partition
file system
computer name
IP address
operating system

14.   Which Windows XP Automatic Update option allows you to select the time when a Windows update is executed?

Automatic (recommended).
Install updates from the Windows Update web site.
Notify me but don’t automatically download or install them.
Download updates for me, but let me choose when to install them.

15.   Which operating system patch installation method is used when a user is notified of a security update for remotely accessing a computer, but wishes not to install this patch?

manual
automatic
semi-automatic
prompt for permission

16.   The Lesson TaskMaster application from ChalkBoard has a problem. Every time the software is installed and loaded on a Windows XP-based Dell computer, and the moment something is typed followed by a tab, two tabs are inserted instead of one. What would be the best solution to this problem?

Uninstall and then reinstall Lesson TaskMaster.
Download, install, and apply a patch from Dell.
Download, install, and apply a patch from Microsoft.
Download, install, and apply a patch from ChalkBoard.

17.   What two items are available from the About Windows option through the Windows Explorer Help menu? (Choose two.)

a list of troubleshooting links
the end-user license agreement
a list of installed hardware devices
the date of the last Windows update
the operating system version number
a list of terms with links to definitions

18.   What Explorer menu option is used to determine the Windows XP version installed on a computer?

Edit
Help
View
Tools
Favorites

19.   Windows XP has a known problem with specific Intel processors. What is the best course of action to take in this situation?

Power off the computer and reinstall the CPU.
Delete Windows XP and perform a clean install.
Reinstall Windows XP to the same hard drive partition.
Reinstall Windows XP to a different hard drive partition.
Download and install the Windows patch that fixes this problem.
Replace the Intel processor with one that is approved by Microsoft.

20.   A computer in the Advanced Technology Center computer room on the second floor, room number 217, has the computer name ATC_217_7. What fact is true about the computer name?

The name is dynamically assigned by the DNS server.
The name is required to allow connectivity to the DHCP server.
The name must include the floor number to support the SLA agreement.
The names of all devices in a workgroup must be the same to allow LAN connectivity.
The name makes it easier for users to reference the device when connecting to it to share resources.

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 3 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?

flow control
encapsulation
encoding
multicasting
access method

2.

Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a message from host H2, which statement is true?

H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.
H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.
H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.
H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

3.   Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)

adds complexity to networks
encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols
provides consistent interconnections across networks
ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment
simplifies new product development

4.   What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?

type of cable used
type of data transmission
speed of transmission
type of connector required
maximum length of cable allowed

5.   Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
source Ethernet address

6.   Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?

logical addresses only
IP addresses only
MAC addresses only
broadcast addresses only

7.   What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?

detects transmission errors
provides timing for transmission
contains the start of frame delimiter
indicates which protocol will receive the frame

8.   What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?

They identify a specific NIC on a host device.
They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.
They provide vendor-specific information about the host.
They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.
They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

9.   Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all other ports?

modem
switch
router
hub

10.   Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose two.)

router
hub
switch
server
computer

11.   Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B. Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol was used in this scenario?

ARP
DHCP
DNS
WINS

12.   A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the MAC table. What action does the switch perform?

It drops the frame.
It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.
It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.
It returns the frame to the sender.

13.   What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?

prevents collisions on a local network
keeps broadcasts contained within a local network
controls which hosts have access to the network
controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

14.

Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?

It sends the data packet as it was received.
It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.
It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.
It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC addresses.

15.   Which table does a router use to make decisions about the interface through which a data packet is to be sent?

ARP table
routing table
network table
forwarding table

16.   If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
There is no impact on communications.

17.   What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?

a server hosted by the ISP
the router interface closest to the computer
a server managed by a central IT department
the switch interface that connects to the computer

18.   What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

dynamic route
default route
destination route
generic route

19.   Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)

naming scheme
IP addressing scheme
length of cable runs
physical location of networking devices
specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

20.   An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network devices? (Choose two.)

NIC
switch
e-mail server
application server
wireless access point

21.   What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?

It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.
It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.
It enables the user to share printers.
It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

Homesb Chapter 4 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1
Which definition describes the term Internet?
#a network of networks that connects countries around the world

2
What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?
#between an ISP and a home-based LAN

3
What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?
#Internet backbone

4
What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)
# fast connections
# extra web space
# additional e-mail accounts

5
What does the tracert command test?
#the network path to a destination

6
What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?
#Upload speeds and download speeds are different.

7
Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose three.)
#an IP address
#a network connection
#access to an Internet service provider

8
Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
# in a home office network
# inside a school building

9
Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?
#ISR

10
What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their network?
#digital subscriber line technology

11
Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?
#to connect end users using cable technology

12

Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
#fiber

13

Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?
#UTP

14
Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)
#uses RJ-45 jacks
#allows quick rearrangements of network connections

15
What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between source and destination networks?
#hop

16
What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?
# reliable data communications

17
What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?
# RJ-45

18
Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?
#crossover

19
What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)
#aids in isolation of cabling problems
#protects cables from physical damage

20
What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
#having improper termination
#using low quality cables or connectors

21
What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
#pinouts
#cable lengths
#connector types

DHomesb Chapter 5 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1  
Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router using NAT? (Choose two.)
    #Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.
    #Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be translated.

2  
A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
    #The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.
  
3   
What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?
    #an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal
   
4   
How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?
    #16
   
5   
Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?
    #255.0.0.0
   

6  


Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?
    #10.0.0.17
   
7   


Refer to the graphic. The host requests an IP configuration from the Linksys integrated router which is configured to provide DHCP services. In addition to the host IP address, which additional IP address is provided that will allow the host to access the ISP and the Internet?
    #internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network

8   


Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?
    #The workstation and server are on different logical networks.
   
9   
Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?
    #host portion
   
10   
Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?
    #DHCP
   
11   
What is one of the purposes of NAT?
    #prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network
   
12   
Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the host?
    #35.4
   
13   
How large are IPv4 addresses?
    #32 bits
   
14   
Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?
    #solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses
   
15   
Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?
    #unicast


16   
Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
    #10.1.1.1
    #172.16.4.4
    #192.168.5.5
   
17   
Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
    #The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
    #The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
    #All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
   
18   
What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?
    #a specific host
   
19   
How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
    #254
   
20   
What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an Ethernet network?
    #MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

21   
A host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default mask belongs to what network?
    #172.32.0.0

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 6 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   What type of server would use IMAP?

DNS
DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

2.   A network client in a corporate environment reboots. Which type of server would most likely be used first?

DNS
DHCP
e-mail
FTP
Telnet
web

3.   Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?

TCP
SMTP
UDP
SNMP

4.   Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

UDP
FTP
IP
SMTP
TCP

5.   Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

Application
Physical
Internet
Network Access
Presentation

6.   You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which transport protocol to use for the application?

UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.
TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.
Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.
Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport protocol should be used.

7.   Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names into their associated IP addresses?

Uniform Resource Locator
Network redirector server
SNMP server
DNS server

8.   A network administrator needs to allow web pages on the company web server to be accessed securely. What port number is used to request web content to be transmitted using a secure protocol?

53
69
80
443

9.   Which port number is used by SMTP?

20
21
25
26
110

10.   Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?

FTP
HTTP
TFTP
SMTP
POP
SNMP

11.   A computer user encounters an issue when printing a document. Which application could a computer user use to contact technical support to gain an immediate answer to an issue?

blog
e-mail
web mail
instant messaging
virtual reality
virtualization

12.   An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?

The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.
The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.
The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.
The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

13.   What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format, address, and transmit information across a network?

protocol hierarchy
protocol modeling
protocol stack
protocol layering

14.   What information is contained in an IP header?

source and destination IP addresses
source and destination MAC addresses
only destination IP and MAC addresses
both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

15.   Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?

4
2
1
3

16.   A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?

removes the IP header
removes the TCP header
passes data to the application layer
removes the Ethernet header and trailer

17.   A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order does the de-encapsulation process occur?

1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data
2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits 

1) remove Ethernet header and trailer
2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application 

1) add TCP header to data
2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits

18.   What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?

It breaks network communications into larger parts.
It increases complexity.
It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.
It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software communications.

19.   What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest layer and working up the model?

data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application
physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application
physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application
application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

20.   What three items are contained in an Ethernet header and trailer? (Choose three.)

source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
error-checking information

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 7 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth technology?

transmits at much lower frequencies
has higher power output
transmits at much higher frequencies
uses better encryption methods

2.   What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)

more secure
longer range
anytime, anywhere connectivity
easy and inexpensive to install
ease of using licensed air space
ease of adding additional devices

3.   What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)

speed
security
mobility
reduced installation time
allows users to share more resources
not susceptible to interference from other devices

4.   A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose three.)

the size of the building
the number of solid interior walls in the building
the presence of microwave ovens in several offices
the encryption method used on the wireless network
the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems
the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

5.   Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.
Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

6.   What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?

IEEE has approved the device.
The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.
The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the Wi-Fi logo.
The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

7.   Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?

connects two networks with a wireless link
stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN
allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network
increases the strength of a wireless signal

8.   Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?

cell
antenna
access point
wireless bridge
wireless client

9.   Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?

created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network
created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP
created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system
created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

10.  

Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?

The router supports encryption and authentication.
The router supports both wired and wireless connections.
The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.
The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

11.

Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?

Network Mode
Network Name (SSID)
Radio Band
Wide Channel
Standard Channel
SSID Broadcast

12.   Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive
responsible for determining the signal strength
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID
used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

13.   Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.
Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.
Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

14.   What type of authentication do most access points use by default?

Open
PSK
WEP
EAP

15.   Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access point?

requires no authentication
uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm
requires the use of an authentication server
requires a mutually agreed upon password

16.   What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)

WEP
WPA
EAP
ASCII
pre-shared keys

17.   What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?

Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.
Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired networks.
Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a secret word.
Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open authentication does not require this programming.

18.   What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from being read by a hacker?

address filtering
authentication
broadcasting
encryption
passphrase encoding

19.   What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can enter the wireless network?

encryption
hacking block
traffic filtering
MAC address filtering
authentication

20.   What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)

8 bit
16 bit
32 bit
64 bit
128 bit

21.   Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____ wireless networks.

encrypt; authenticate users on
filter traffic; select the operating frequency for
identify the wireless network; compress data on
create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 8 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)

fishing
vishing
phishing
spamming
pretexting
junk mailing

2.   During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?

by e-mail
by phone
in person
through another person

3.   While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?

worm
virus
Trojan horse
denial of service

4.   What is a major characteristic of a Worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

5.   A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network. The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of attack occurred?

Trojan horse
brute force
ping of death
SYN flooding

6.   What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that is being visited?

adware
popups
spyware
tracking cookies

7.   What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?

brute force
spam
spyware
tracking cookies

8.   What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or denied?

identification and authentication
remote access
acceptable use
incident handling

9.   Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?

Only e-mail programs need to be protected.
Only hard drives can be protected.
Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.
Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.

10.   Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)

Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not both.
When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by mistake.
Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.
Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail attachments.
Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be forwarded to other users immediately.

11.   What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall services?

server-based
integrated
personal
appliance-based

12.   Which abbreviation refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?

SPI
DMZ
ISR
ISP

13.   Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?

Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.
Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic is denied.
Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is permitted.

14.   To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated router connect?

DMZ
external
internal
a network other than the wired network

15.   What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?

A DMZ is not supported.
The router is an example of a server-based firewall.
The router is an example of an application-based firewall.
Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

16.   What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?

a large corporate environment
a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts
a home environment which requires secure VPN access
a small business environment which is experiencing continuing DDoS attacks

17.   What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?

It provides various views of possible attack paths.
It identifies missing security updates on a computer.
It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.
It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.
It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.

18.   Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for wired and wireless security.

Periodically update anti-virus software.
Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.
Periodically update the host operating system.
Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.
Configure login permissions on the integrated router.
Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

19.   What best practice relates to wireless access point security?

activation of a popup stopper
a change of the default IP address
an update in the antivirus software definitions
physically securing the cable between the access point and client

20.  

Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection option Enabled provide?

It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.
It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.
It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.
It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

Exam Viewer - DHomesb Chapter 9 - CCNA Discovery: Networking for Home and Small Businesses (Version 4.0)

1.   What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call from a user who cannot access the company web server?

Reboot the web server.
Replace the NIC of the computer.
Ask the user to log off and log on again.
Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message displays.

2.   A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable. After trying several configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?

top-down
bottom-up
substitution
trial-and-error
divide-and-conquer

3.   Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the Internet. What is the first troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer method is being used?

Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.
Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration.
Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.
Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.

4.   Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home networks and large corporate networks? (Choose two.)

having a backup ISR
running network monitoring applications
documenting the troubleshooting process
keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions
keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available

5.   Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)

hardware failure
software configuration
devices not able to ping
loose cable connections
device driver configuration

6.   Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?

ipconfig
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /renew
ipconfig /release

7.   What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet traversing the Internet?

ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
ping
tracert

8.   What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name resolution?

ipconfig
netstat
nslookup
tracert

9.   Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?

top-down
bottom-up
substitution
divide-and-conquer

10.   A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source of a network problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some of the ports. What does this indicate?

Self-diagnostics have not completed.
The power supply is the source of the problem.
The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.
The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.
There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.
The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.

11.   A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the network. The UTP cable is suspected. What could be the problem?

A straight-through cable is being used
The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.
The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.
A crossover cable is being used.

12.  

Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

13.   Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a wireless connection to occur? (Choose three.)

SSID
authentication
MD5 checksum
antennae type
encryption key
MAC address filters

14.   A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless access point. Which three configuration settings make it easy for hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)

configuring NAT
broadcasting the SSID
using open authentication
enabling MAC address filters
using the default internal IP address
using DHCP to provide IP addresses

15.  

Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but the wired host can. What is the problem?

The host WEP key is incorrect.
The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.
The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.

16.  

Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.
The host subnet mask is incorrect.
The host default gateway is incorrect.
The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.
The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

17.   When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an ISR provide to a client? (Choose three.)

physical address
MAC address
default gateway
static IP address
dynamic IP address
DNS server address

18.   What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the router and the ISP? (Choose two.)

router status page
wireless card settings
router operating system version
local host operating system version
connectivity status as indicated by LEDs

19.   A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys integrated router. Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which two troubleshooting steps could help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)

Ensure the correct cable is used.
Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.
Ensure both devices have the same IP address.
Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.
Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.
Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.

20.   Network baselines should be performed in which two situations? (Choose two.)

after the network is installed and running optimally
after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network
after major changes are implemented on the network
after several computers are added to the network
at the end of the work week

21.   Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks? (Choose two.)

identifying when the problem occurred
determining if other users are currently logged into the computer
updating network diagrams and documentation
implementing the solution to the problem
running a network baseline test
determining the cost of fixing the problem

22.   How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?

Remote access uses a live chat feature.
Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables if necessary.
Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the site.
FAQs can be consulted more easily.

23.   Which two items should be added to the documentation following a troubleshooting event? (Choose two.)

final resolution
repetitive measures
number of people involved in the problem
accurate current network infrastructure diagrams
results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps